Quote from: quadz on February 01, 2011, 01:30:30 PMMy objection was to this apparent sleight of hand in the second part.1. Avoid the pretense of knowledge. 2. Presume knowledge of god.Which, perhaps, is postulating [without basis?] a motive on the part of the speaker having an intent to deceive? Taking the statements as they are - without ascribing a possible motive, what do you think?
My objection was to this apparent sleight of hand in the second part.1. Avoid the pretense of knowledge. 2. Presume knowledge of god.
Hmm... I hadn't meant to suggest an overt intent to deceive.When I say sleight of hand, I'm referring to the sort of logical gap that exists in the familiar creationist argument that takes the form: "The universe we see is too complex to have begun from a simple event like a quantum fluctuation (or big bang), therefore God must have created it." The sleight of hand in this case being explaining away the first complexity by substituting an even greater meta-complexity.I don't think they're being intentionally deceptive, but I do think as an argument from complexity, it's inherently flawed.So my initial reaction to, "if any man think that he knoweth any thing, he knoweth nothing yet as he ought to know. But if any man love God, the same is known of him," was along similar lines.However, after our continued discussion, I think I have a better sense of how the remark was intended.And although I'm (personally) inclined to doubt there's really a god who's aware of 'being loved', all the same I can imagine how for someone who believes or who professes to believe in god, that letting one's experience and conceptualization and understanding of 'god' flow from a basis of love, will tend to produce different results than dictating what 'god wants' from a basis of 'knowledge about what god wants'.Kind of thing.Is that akin to how it was meant?Regards,quadz
When I say sleight of hand, I'm referring to the sort of logical gap that exists in the familiar creationist argument that takes the form: "The universe we see is too complex to have begun from a simple event like a quantum fluctuation (or big bang), therefore God must have created it." The sleight of hand in this case being explaining away the first complexity by substituting an even greater meta-complexity.
nothing does not have fluctuations, nothing has nothing by definition. whether there ever was nothing is another matter.
nothing does have fluctuations, by definition. whether there ever was an absence of quantum mechanics is an uncertainty.
that's not nothing
But only because we have not learned to measure that as yet, yes? Wink Grin
So there never really was true "nothing", it has always existed huh? Sounds religious to me. Keep the faith.